Sunday, December 4, 2011
Best Knowledge on CS2207 DIGITAL LABORATORY CS2208 DATA STRUCTURES LAB CS2209 OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING LAB
CS 2207 DIGITAL LABORATORY 0 0 3 2
(Common to CSE & IT)
LIST OF EXPERIMENTS
Verification of Boolean theorems using digital logic gates
Design and implementation of combinational circuits using basic gates for arbitrary functions, code converters, etc.
Design and implementation of 4-bit binary adder / subtractor using basic gates and MSI devices
Design and implementation of parity generator / checker using basic gates and MSI devices
Design and implementation of magnitude comparator
Design and implementation of application using multiplexers/ Demultiplexers
Design and implementation of Shift registers
Design and implementation of Synchronous and Asynchronous counters
Simulation of combinational circuits using Hardware Description Language (VHDL/ Verilog HDL software required)
Simulation of sequential circuits using HDL (VHDL/ Verilog HDL software required)
CS 2208 DATA STRUCTURES LAB 0 0 3 2
Aim:
To develop programming skills in design and implementation of data structures and their applications.
1. Implement singly and doubly linked lists.
2. Represent a polynomial as a linked list and write functions for polynomial addition.
1. Implement stack and use it to convert infix to postfix expression
2. Implement a double-ended queue (dequeue) where insertion and deletion
operations are possible at both the ends.
3. Implement an expression tree. Produce its pre-order, in-order, and post-
order traversals.
4. Implement binary search tree.
5. Implement insertion in AVL trees.
6. Implement priority queue using binary heaps
7. Implement hashing with open addressing.
8. Implement Prim's algorithm using priority queues to find MST of an
undirected graph.
Total: 45
List of Equipments and components for A Batch of 30 students (1 per batch)
SOFTWARE REQUIRED – TURBOC version 3 or GCC version 3.3.4.
OPERATING SYSTEM – WINDOWS 2000 / XP / NT OR LINUX
COMPUTERS REQUIRED – 30 Nos. (Minimum Requirement : Pentium III or Pentium IV with 256 RAM and 40 GB harddisk)
CS 2209 OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING LAB 0 0 3 2
(Common to CSE & IT)
1. Design C++ classes with static members, methods with default arguments, friend functions. (For example, design matrix and vector classes with static allocation, and a friend function to do matrix-vector multiplication)
2. Implement complex number class with necessary operator overloadings and type conversions such as integer to complex, double to complex, complex to double etc.
3. Implement Matrix class with dynamic memory allocation and necessary methods. Give proper constructor, destructor, copy constructor, and overloading of assignment operator.
4. Overload the new and delete operators to provide custom dynamic allocation of memory.
5. Develop a template of linked-list class and its methods.
6. Develop templates of standard sorting algorithms such as bubble sort, insertion sort, merge sort, and quick sort.
7. Design stack and queue classes with necessary exception handling.
8. Define Point class and an Arc class. Define a Graph class which represents graph as a collection of Point objects and Arc objects. Write a method to find a minimum cost spanning tree in a graph.
9. Develop with suitable hierarchy, classes for Point, Shape, Rectangle, Square, Circle, Ellipse, Triangle, Polygon, etc. Design a simple test application to demonstrate dynamic polymorphism and RTTI. Write a C++ program that randomly generates complex numbers (use previously designed Complex class) and writes them two per line in a file along with an operator (+, -, *, or /). The numbers are written to file in the format (a + ib). Write another program to read one line at a time from this file, perform the corresponding operation on the two complex numbers read, and write the result to another file (one per line).
Sunday, December 4, 2011 0
Best Knowledge on GE2021 ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING GE 2021 ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING
GE 2021 ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING 3 0 0 3
(Common to Civil, CSE, IT & Biomedical Degree Programmes)
AIM
The aim of this course is to create awareness in every engineering graduate about the importance of environment, the effect of technology on the environment and ecological balance and make them sensitive to the environment problems in every professional endeavour that they participates.
OBJECTIVE
At the end of this course the student is expected to understand what constitutes the environment, what are precious resources in the environment, how to conserve these resources, what is the role of a human being in maintaining a clean environment and useful environment for the future generations and how to maintain ecological balance and preserve bio-diversity. The role of government and non-government organization in environment managements.
Unit I ENVIRONMENT, ECOSYSTEMS AND BIODIVERSITY 14
Definition, scope and importance of environment – need for public awareness - concept of an ecosystem – structure and function of an ecosystem – producers, consumers and decomposers – energy flow in the ecosystem – ecological succession – food chains, food webs and ecological pyramids – Introduction, types, characteristic features, structure and function of the (a) forest ecosystem (b) grassland ecosystem (c) desert ecosystem (d) aquatic ecosystems (ponds, streams, lakes, rivers, oceans, estuaries) – Introduction to biodiversity definition: genetic, species and ecosystem diversity – biogeographical classification of India – value of biodiversity: consumptive use, productive use, social, ethical, aesthetic and option values – Biodiversity at global, national and local levels – India as a mega-diversity nation – hot-spots of biodiversity – threats to biodiversity: habitat loss, poaching of wildlife, man-wildlife conflicts – endangered and endemic species of India – conservation of biodiversity: In-situ and ex-situ conservation of biodiversity.
Field study of common plants, insects, birds
Field study of simple ecosystems – pond, river, hill slopes, etc.
Unit II ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION 8
Definition – causes, effects and control measures of: (a) Air pollution (b) Water pollution (c) Soil pollution (d) Marine pollution (e) Noise pollution (f) Thermal pollution (g) Nuclear hazards – soil waste management: causes, effects and control measures of municipal solid wastes – role of an individual in prevention of pollution – pollution case studies – disaster management: floods, earthquake, cyclone and landslides.
Field study of local polluted site – Urban / Rural / Industrial / Agricultural.
Unit III NATURAL RESOURCES 10
Forest resources: Use and over-exploitation, deforestation, case studies- timber extraction, mining, dams and their effects on forests and tribal people – Water resources: Use and over-utilization of surface and ground water, floods, drought, conflicts over water, dams-benefits and problems – Mineral resources: Use and exploitation, environmental effects of extracting and using mineral resources, case studies – Food resources: World food problems, changes caused by agriculture and overgrazing, effects of modern agriculture, fertilizer-pesticide problems, water logging, salinity, case studies – Energy resources: Growing energy needs, renewable and non renewable energy sources, use of alternate energy sources. case studies – Land resources: Land as a resource, land degradation, man induced landslides, soil erosion and desertification – role of an individual in conservation of natural resources – Equitable use of resources for sustainable lifestyles.
Field study of local area to document environmental assets – river / forest / grassland / hill / mountain.
Unit IV SOCIAL ISSUES AND THE ENVIRONMENT 7
From unsustainable to sustainable development – urban problems related to energy – water conservation, rain water harvesting, watershed management – resettlement and rehabilitation of people; its problems and concerns, case studies – role of non-governmental organization- environmental ethics: Issues and possible solutions – climate change, global warming, acid rain, ozone layer depletion, nuclear accidents and holocaust, case studies. – wasteland reclamation – consumerism and waste products – environment production act – Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) act – Water (Prevention and control of Pollution) act – Wildlife protection act – Forest conservation act – enforcement machinery involved in environmental legislation- central and state pollution control boards- Public awareness.
Unit V HUMAN POPULATION AND THE ENVIRONMENT 6
Population growth, variation among nations – population explosion – family welfare programme – environment and human health – human rights – value education – HIV / AIDS – women and child welfare – role of information technology in environment and human health – Case studies.
Total = 45
TEXT BOOKS
1. Gilbert M.Masters, ‘Introduction to Environmental Engineering and Science’, 2nd edition, Pearson Education (2004).
2. Benny Joseph, ‘Environmental Science and Engineering’, Tata McGraw-Hill, New Delhi, (2006).
REFERENCE BOOKS
1. R.K. Trivedi, ‘Handbook of Environmental Laws, Rules, Guidelines, Compliances and Standards’, Vol. I and II, Enviro Media.
2. Cunningham, W.P. Cooper, T.H. Gorhani, ‘Environmental Encyclopedia’, Jaico Publ., House, Mumbai, 2001.
3. Dharmendra S. Sengar, ‘Environmental law’, Prentice hall of India PVT LTD, New Delhi, 2007. 4. Rajagopalan, R, ‘Environmental Studies-From Crisis to Cure’, Oxford University Press (2005)
CS2204 ANALOG AND DIGITAL COMMUNICATION 3 1 0 4
UNIT I FUNDAMENTALS OF ANALOG COMMUNICATION 9
Principles of amplitude modulation, AM envelope, frequency spectrum and bandwidth, modulation index and percent modulation, AM Voltage distribution, AM power distribution, Angle modulation - FM and PM waveforms, phase deviation and modulation index, frequency deviation and percent modulation, Frequency analysis of angle modulated waves. Bandwidth requirements for Angle modulated waves.
UNIT II DIGITAL COMMUNICATION 9
Introduction, Shannon limit for information capacity, digital amplitude modulation, frequency shift keying, FSK bit rate and baud, FSK transmitter, BW consideration of FSK, FSK receiver, phase shift keying – binary phase shift keying – QPSK, Quadrature Amplitude modulation, bandwidth efficiency, carrier recovery – squaring loop, Costas loop, DPSK.
UNIT III DIGITAL TRANSMISSION 9
Introduction, Pulse modulation, PCM – PCM sampling, sampling rate, signal to quantization noise rate, companding – analog and digital – percentage error, delta modulation, adaptive delta modulation, differential pulse code modulation, pulse transmission – Intersymbol interference, eye patterns.
UNIT IV DATA COMMUNICATIONS 9
Introduction, History of Data communications, Standards Organizations for data communication, data communication circuits, data communication codes, Error control, Error Detection, Error correction, Data communication Hardware, serial and parallel interfaces, data modems, Asynchronous modem, Synchronous modem, low-speed modem, medium and high speed modem, modem control.
UNIT V SPREAD SPECTRUM AND MULTIPLE ACCESS TECHNIQUES 9
Introduction, Pseudo-noise sequence, DS spread spectrum with coherent binary PSK, processing gain, FH spread spectrum, multiple access techniques – wireless communication, TDMA and CDMA in wireless communication systems, source coding of speech for wireless communications.
TUTORIAL: 15
TOTAL: 45 +15=60
TEXT BOOKS:
1. Wayne Tomasi, “Advanced Electronic Communication Systems”, 6/e, Pearson Education, 2007.
2. Simon Haykin, “Communication Systems”, 4th Edition, John Wiley & Sons., 2001.
REFERENCES:
1. H.Taub,D L Schilling ,G Saha ,”Principles of Communication”3/e,2007.
2. B.P.Lathi,”Modern Analog And Digital Communication systems”, 3/e, Oxford University Press, 2007
3. Blake, “Electronic Communication Systems”, Thomson Delmar Publications, 2002.
4. Martin S.Roden, “Analog and Digital Communication System”, 3rd Edition, PHI, 2002. B.Sklar,”Digital Communication Fundamentals and Applications”2/e Pearson Education 2007.
CS 2203 OBJECT-ORIENTED PROGRAMMING 3 0 0 3
(Common to CSE & IT)
Aim: To understand the concepts of object-oriented programming and master OOP using C++.
UNIT I 9
Object oriented programming concepts – objects – classes – methods and messages – abstraction and encapsulation – inheritance – abstract classes – polymorphism.
Introduction to C++ – classes – access specifiers – function and data members – default arguments – function overloading – friend functions – const and volatile functions - static members – Objects – pointers and objects – constant objects – nested classes – local classes
UNIT II 9
Constructors – default constructor – Parameterized constructors – Constructor with dynamic allocation – copy constructor – destructors – operator overloading – overloading through friend functions – overloading the assignment operator – type conversion – explicit constructor
UNIT III 9
Function and class templates - Exception handling – try-catch-throw paradigm – exception specification – terminate and Unexpected functions – Uncaught exception.
UNIT IV 9
Inheritance – public, private, and protected derivations – multiple inheritance - virtual base class – abstract class – composite objects Runtime polymorphism – virtual functions – pure virtual functions – RTTI – typeid – dynamic casting – RTTI and templates – cross casting – down casting .
UNIT V 9
Streams and formatted I/O – I/O manipulators - file handling – random access – object serialization – namespaces - std namespace – ANSI String Objects – standard template library.
Total: 45
Text Books:
1. B. Trivedi, “Programming with ANSI C++”, Oxford University Press, 2007.
References:
1. Ira Pohl, “Object Oriented Programming using C++”, Pearson Education, Second Edition Reprint 2004..
2. S. B. Lippman, Josee Lajoie, Barbara E. Moo, “C++ Primer”, Fourth Edition, Pearson Education, 2005. B. Stroustrup, “The C++ Programming language”, Third edition, Pearson Education, 2004.
Best Knowledge For Students CS 2202 DIGITAL PRINCIPLES AND SYSTEM DESIGN CS 2202 DIGITAL PRINCIPLES AND SYSTEM DESIGN
CS 2202 DIGITAL PRINCIPLES AND SYSTEM DESIGN 3 1 0 4
(Common to CSE & IT)
AIM
To provide an in-depth knowledge of the design of digital circuits and the use of Hardware Description Language in digital system design.
OBJECTIVES
To understand different methods used for the simplification of Boolean functions
To design and implement combinational circuits
To design and implement synchronous sequential circuits
To design and implement asynchronous sequential circuits
To study the fundamentals of VHDL / Verilog HDL
UNIT I BOOLEAN ALGEBRA AND LOGIC GATES 8
Review of binary number systems - Binary arithmetic – Binary codes – Boolean algebra and theorems - Boolean functions – Simplifications of Boolean functions using Karnaugh map and tabulation methods – Implementation of Boolean functions using logic gates.
UNIT II COMBINATIONAL LOGIC 9
Combinational circuits – Analysis and design procedures - Circuits for arithmetic operations - Code conversion – Introduction to Hardware Description Language (HDL)
UNIT III DESIGN WITH MSI DEVICES 8
Decoders and encoders - Multiplexers and demultiplexers - Memory and programmable logic - HDL for combinational circuits
UNIT IV SYNCHRONOUS SEQUENTIAL LOGIC 10
Sequential circuits – Flip flops – Analysis and design procedures - State reduction and state assignment - Shift registers – Counters – HDL for Sequential Circuits.
UNIT V ASYNCHRONOUS SEQUENTIAL LOGIC 10
Analysis and design of asynchronous sequential circuits - Reduction of state and flow tables – Race-free state assignment – Hazards. ASM Chart.
TUTORIAL = 15 TOTAL : 60
TEXT BOOKS
1. M.Morris Mano, “Digital Design”, 3rd edition, Pearson Education, 2007.
REFERENCES
1. Charles H.Roth, Jr. “Fundamentals of Logic Design”, 4th Edition, Jaico Publishing
House, Cengage Earning, 5th ed, 2005.
2. Donald D.Givone, “Digital Principles and Design”, Tata McGraw-Hill, 2007.
Aim: To master the design and applications of linear, tree, balanced tree, hashing, set, and graph structures.
Unit I Linear Structures 9
Abstract Data Types (ADT) – List ADT – array-based implementation – linked list implementation – cursor-based linked lists – doubly-linked lists – applications of lists – Stack ADT – Queue ADT – circular queue implementation – Applications of stacks and queues
Unit II Tree Structures 9
Tree ADT – tree traversals – left child right sibling data structures for general trees – Binary Tree ADT – expression trees – applications of trees – binary search tree ADT – Threaded Binary Trees.
Unit III Balanced Trees 9
AVL Trees – Splay Trees – B-Tree - heaps – binary heaps – applications of binary heaps
Unit IV Hashing and Set 9
Hashing – Separate chaining – open addressing – rehashing – extendible hashing - Disjoint Set ADT – dynamic equivalence problem – smart union algorithms – path compression – applications of Set
Unit V Graphs 9
Definitions – Topological sort – breadth-first traversal - shortest-path algorithms – minimum spanning tree – Prim's and Kruskal's algorithms – Depth-first traversal – biconnectivity – Euler circuits – applications of graphs
Total: 45
TEXT BOOK
1. M. A. Weiss, “Data Structures and Algorithm Analysis in C”, Second Edition , Pearson Education, 2005.
REFERENCES
1. A. V. Aho, J. E. Hopcroft, and J. D. Ullman, “Data Structures and Algorithms”,
Pearson Education, First Edition Reprint 2003.
2. R. F. Gilberg, B. A. Forouzan, “Data Structures”, Second Edition, Thomson India
Edition, 2005.
Use For students MA2211 TRANSFORMS AND PARTIAL DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS MA 2211 TRANSFORMS AND PARTIAL DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS
MA 2211 TRANSFORMS AND PARTIAL DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS 3 1 0 4
(Common to all branches)
OBJECTIVES
The course objective is to develop the skills of the students in the areas of Transforms and Partial Differtial Equations. This will be necessary for their effective studies in a large number of engineering subjects like heat conduction, communication systems, electro-optics and electromagnetic theory. The course will also serve as a prerequisite for post graduate and specialized studies and research.
1. Fourier Series 9 + 3
Dirichlet’s conditions – General Fourier series – Odd and even functions – Half range sine series – Half range cosine series – Complex form of Fourier Series – Parseval’s identify – Harmonic Analysis.
2. Fourier TransformS 9 + 3
Fourier integral theorem (without proof) – Fourier transform pair – Sine and
Cosine transforms – Properties – Transforms of simple functions – Convolution theorem – Parseval’s identity.
3. PARTIAL DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS 9 +3
Formation of partial differential equations – Lagrange’s linear equation – Solutions of standard types of first order partial differential equations - Linear partial differential equations of second and higher order with constant coefficients.
4. applications of partial differential equations 9 + 3
Solutions of one dimensional wave equation – One dimensional equation of heat conduction – Steady state solution of two-dimensional equation of heat conduction (Insulated edges excluded) – Fourier series solutions in cartesian coordinates.
5. Z -TRANSFORMs AND DIFFERENCE Equations 9 + 3
Z-transforms - Elementary properties – Inverse Z-transform – Convolution theorem -Formation of difference equations – Solution of difference equations using Z-transform.
Lectures : 45 Tutorials : 15 Total : 60
TEXT BOOKS
1. Grewal, B.S, ‘Higher Engineering Mathematics’ 40th Edition, Khanna publishers, Delhi, (2007)
REFERENCES
1. Bali.N.P and Manish Goyal ‘A Textbook of Engineering Mathematics’, Seventh Edition, Laxmi Publications(P) Ltd. (2007)
2. Ramana.B.V. ‘Higher Engineering Mathematics’ Tata Mc-GrawHill Publishing Company limited, New Delhi (2007).
3. Glyn James, ‘Advanced Modern Engineering Mathematics’, Third edition-Pearson Education (2007).
4. Erwin Kreyszig ’Advanced Engineering Mathematics’, Eighth edition-Wiley India (2007).
(Common to all branches)
OBJECTIVES
The course objective is to develop the skills of the students in the areas of Transforms and Partial Differtial Equations. This will be necessary for their effective studies in a large number of engineering subjects like heat conduction, communication systems, electro-optics and electromagnetic theory. The course will also serve as a prerequisite for post graduate and specialized studies and research.
1. Fourier Series 9 + 3
Dirichlet’s conditions – General Fourier series – Odd and even functions – Half range sine series – Half range cosine series – Complex form of Fourier Series – Parseval’s identify – Harmonic Analysis.
2. Fourier TransformS 9 + 3
Fourier integral theorem (without proof) – Fourier transform pair – Sine and
Cosine transforms – Properties – Transforms of simple functions – Convolution theorem – Parseval’s identity.
3. PARTIAL DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS 9 +3
Formation of partial differential equations – Lagrange’s linear equation – Solutions of standard types of first order partial differential equations - Linear partial differential equations of second and higher order with constant coefficients.
4. applications of partial differential equations 9 + 3
Solutions of one dimensional wave equation – One dimensional equation of heat conduction – Steady state solution of two-dimensional equation of heat conduction (Insulated edges excluded) – Fourier series solutions in cartesian coordinates.
5. Z -TRANSFORMs AND DIFFERENCE Equations 9 + 3
Z-transforms - Elementary properties – Inverse Z-transform – Convolution theorem -Formation of difference equations – Solution of difference equations using Z-transform.
Lectures : 45 Tutorials : 15 Total : 60
TEXT BOOKS
1. Grewal, B.S, ‘Higher Engineering Mathematics’ 40th Edition, Khanna publishers, Delhi, (2007)
REFERENCES
1. Bali.N.P and Manish Goyal ‘A Textbook of Engineering Mathematics’, Seventh Edition, Laxmi Publications(P) Ltd. (2007)
2. Ramana.B.V. ‘Higher Engineering Mathematics’ Tata Mc-GrawHill Publishing Company limited, New Delhi (2007).
3. Glyn James, ‘Advanced Modern Engineering Mathematics’, Third edition-Pearson Education (2007).
4. Erwin Kreyszig ’Advanced Engineering Mathematics’, Eighth edition-Wiley India (2007).
Over the last few decades, with the development of Information Technology, architecture as a profession has witnessed a tremendous change. Software such as AutoCAD, Revit and even 3D Max has replaced traditional equipment and the way of dealing with projects. For example, now it is possible for you to rework your designs and edit them by previewing your previous ones!
With the real estate sector beginning to look up again, architecture is also poised for growth. There are about 150 Schools of Architecture in the country, which are approved by the Council of Architecture. Each offers a B. Arch degree, which enables graduates to register with the Council of Architecture and practice as architects. Says Ashish Saxena, Architect, Stambha Design House, New Delhi, “To be an architect one needs to have a knack for design and construction.’’ The University School of Architecture and Planning offers a five-year full time course leading to a Bachelor of Architecture degree. To pursue this course, the minimum eligibility requirement is 10+2 with mathematics and physics. As per the Council of Architecture’s norms, you must also pass NATA or the National Aptitude Test in Architecture that is conducted by the Council of Architecture. This measures your aptitude in drawing and your observation skills, sense of proportion, aesthetic sensitivity, critical thinking ability, etc. “You can go abroad for further studies. Almost all universities offer a postgraduation in architectural conversation, urban design, industrial design, landscape architecture and project management etc.,” says Saxena.
After completing the architecture course you can start as a junior architect, and go on to become senior architect and then team leader. You have chances with various architectural firms such as Arcob etc. who give juniors a good start. “It’s one’s own zeal, which drives him. Many start their own practice and earn independently servicing their own clients instead of sticking to a job format,” says Sanil Kumar, Architect, Stambha Design House.
“The job prospects in India are excellent. The prospects abroad however, will be contingent on the state of the economy in that country. However, it may be noted that Indian graduates invariably do well abroad,” says Professor AGK Menon, School of Planning and Architecture, GGSIPU. “The term permanence is now not associated with architecture, so people often renew and redesign their structures. Often old structures are razed to the ground. In fact, just like cars, architecture has also become a personal statement,” says Kumar. According to Professor Menon, A fresher or young architect can start his/her career with about Rs. 25,000 per month (in a metropolitan city), after that the sky is the limit for someone who is hard working!
With the real estate sector beginning to look up again, architecture is also poised for growth. There are about 150 Schools of Architecture in the country, which are approved by the Council of Architecture. Each offers a B. Arch degree, which enables graduates to register with the Council of Architecture and practice as architects. Says Ashish Saxena, Architect, Stambha Design House, New Delhi, “To be an architect one needs to have a knack for design and construction.’’ The University School of Architecture and Planning offers a five-year full time course leading to a Bachelor of Architecture degree. To pursue this course, the minimum eligibility requirement is 10+2 with mathematics and physics. As per the Council of Architecture’s norms, you must also pass NATA or the National Aptitude Test in Architecture that is conducted by the Council of Architecture. This measures your aptitude in drawing and your observation skills, sense of proportion, aesthetic sensitivity, critical thinking ability, etc. “You can go abroad for further studies. Almost all universities offer a postgraduation in architectural conversation, urban design, industrial design, landscape architecture and project management etc.,” says Saxena.
After completing the architecture course you can start as a junior architect, and go on to become senior architect and then team leader. You have chances with various architectural firms such as Arcob etc. who give juniors a good start. “It’s one’s own zeal, which drives him. Many start their own practice and earn independently servicing their own clients instead of sticking to a job format,” says Sanil Kumar, Architect, Stambha Design House.
“The job prospects in India are excellent. The prospects abroad however, will be contingent on the state of the economy in that country. However, it may be noted that Indian graduates invariably do well abroad,” says Professor AGK Menon, School of Planning and Architecture, GGSIPU. “The term permanence is now not associated with architecture, so people often renew and redesign their structures. Often old structures are razed to the ground. In fact, just like cars, architecture has also become a personal statement,” says Kumar. According to Professor Menon, A fresher or young architect can start his/her career with about Rs. 25,000 per month (in a metropolitan city), after that the sky is the limit for someone who is hard working!
Hi guys, it is counselling time and everyone from computer groups and many from biology groups would be very busy selecting colleges and groups, predicting the counselling results and having nightmares. If not, you are creating nightmares for the parents, who would be busy negotiating the fee for the management seats.
Oops! I am not into any political and social reforms. Anyway, if parents are ready to pay, why preach against it?
The sole idea of this article is to underline the reason for this craze for engineering. There are about one-and-a-half lakh seats in Tamil Nadu alone. But hardly thirty thousand get a job that is related to their field of studies. The rest remain either jobless or are placed in an IT firm. Then why should we opt for engineering?
Parents who read newspapers, especially the classifieds, insist upon their children taking engineering. Obviously, once they notice “Expecting professional qualification alone” in most of the matrimonial ads, they decide to go for the better option; If not a better job, at least a better partner.
PEER PRESSURE
This time, it comes from our very own friends and relatives. If you have chosen any other course, the first question you would be asked is “Are you mad?” Indeed, we have to change our decision instantaneously.
Yes, it is a matter of identity. If someone asks “What is your boy doing?”, the parents can proudly say he is an engineer, no matter how many arrears he has. But if he or she studies Fashion Technology or Vis-Com, we can't reveal this without explaining the course and scope of the course for half an hour. Still, the eyebrows of the listeners remain raised.
We think “Why take chances”, though there is no risk involved in it. When we have engineering, why take other courses?
TIME FOR CHANGE
We spend a whopping sum at the beginning of the course and almost a lakh of rupees for four years, only to bag a job worth two or three lakhs per annum. Well, that is alright.
But it is possible to get more or less the same salary with three years of education and with much less expenditure, if you pursue a degree in arts or science in a good college.
However, we still prefer engineering, even if we don't have any ambition of becoming a Kalam or a Chawla. We study engineering and get IT jobs. Cheer up guys.
COURTESY-
JAYARAMAN
III year B.E (E&I), MIT
TAMILNADU SI SUB INSPECTOR SELECTION EXAMINATION
MODEL QUESTION PAPERSSC CPO Sub Inspector Examination
1. ‘India Today’ is—
(A) A staggering mass of problems
(B) Former British India minus Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) A News magazine mainly devoted to current affairs
(D) The Union of India, a member of United Nations
2. The book ‘It was Five Past Midnight’ is on—
(A) Bhuj Earthquake
(B) Orissa Floods
(C) Andhra Cyclone
(D) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
3. Teen Bigha Corridor links—
(A) India and Pakistan
(B) India and China
(C) Bangladesh and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
4. What is the field in which outstanding work may be recognized with the award of Pulitzer Prize ?
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Literature and Journalism
(C) International Understanding
(D) Environmental Studies
5. Vijay Stambha at Chittor was built by—
(A) Maharana Pratap
(B) Rana Sangram Singh
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Rana Ratan Singh
6. The device used to change the speed of an electric fan is—
(A) Amplifier
(B) Regulator
(C) Switch
(D) Rectifier
7. Namdhapa National Park is in—
(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Tripura
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
8. Which scripture was called his ‘mother’ by Gandhiji ?
(A) Ramayana
(B) The New Testament
(C) Bhagwat Gita
(D) The Holy Quran
9. On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Mandakini
(C) Dhauli Ganga
(D) Bhagirathi
10. Nobel Prize winning Indian Amartya Sen is known for his work in which area ?
(A) Physics
(B) Environmental Protection
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics
11. Who has been crowned Miss Universe, 2008 ?
(A) Miss Japan
(B) Miss Venezuela
(C) Miss Philippines
(D) Miss Malaysia
12. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India reached its highest level in 13 years on 27th July, 2008. It was—
(A) 11.75 per cent
(B) 11.85 per cent
(C) 12.00 per cent
(D) 12.05 per cent
13. The French Open, 2009 Men’s Singles was won by—
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Katarina Srebotnik
14. The venue of the Energy Summit, 2008 was—
(A) Jeddah
(B) Tehran
(C) Riyadh
(D) Tripoli
15. CTBT stands for—
(A) Continued Test Ban Treaty
(B) Continued Test Based Treatments
(C) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(D) Commercial Test Based Tariff
16. Asia Cup, 2008 final was played between—
(A) India and Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan and India
(C) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
17. For which one of the following, M. S. Dhoni was chosen for the year 2007 ?
(A) Arjun Award
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(D) None of the above
18. Full form of MCA is—
(A) Ministry of Company Affairs
(B) Master of Computer Application
(C) Member Chartered Accountant
(D) Master of Commerce and Arts
19. China has hosted the—
(A) XXIX Olympic Games
(B) XXVIII Olympic Games
(C) XXVII Olympic Games
(D) XXX Olympic Games
20. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by—
(A) Edward Stone
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Edwin Lutyens
(D) Tarun Dutt
21. ‘The Quit India Movement’ was launched in 1942 in the month of—
(A) January
(B) March
(C) August
(D) December
22. Match the following—
Column-I
(A) Keshab Sen
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan
Column-II
1. Prarthana Samaj
2. Brahmo Samaj
3. Aligarh Movement
4. Arya Samaj
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
23. Who was the first English President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) George Yule
(B) William Wedderburn
(C) A. O. Hume
(D) Henry Cotton
24. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old Man of India’ ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
25. Who wrote Akbarnama ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Birbal
(C) Abul Fazal
(D) Bhagavan Das
26. The pledge for ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was taken at the Congress Session of—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Lahore
(C) Allahabad
(D) Madras
27. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India ?
(A) 1950 A.D.
(B) 1945 A.D.
(C) 1959 A.D.
(D) 1962 A.D.
28. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) Mr. V. V. Giri
29. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words—‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?
(A) 28th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 52nd
30. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by—
(A) A person nominated by both the Houses of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of India
31. The Constitution of India came into force on—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1952
(C) 15 August, 1948
(D) 26 November, 1949
32. Who was the first Woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following ?
(A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
33. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is—
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Select Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) None of these
34. Fog is an example of—
(A) Gas dispersed in gas
(B) Liquid dispersed in gas
(C) Solid dispersed in gas
(D) Solid dispersed in liquid
35. Which from the following is a landlocked sea ?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea
36. Match the following—
Sea Ports
(A) Bhatkal
(b) Alleppey
(c) Kakinada
(d) Tuticorin
States
1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
37. Which one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall ?
(A) Isohypses
(B) Isohalines
(C) Isobars
(D) Isohyets
38. Equator represents—
(A) Line joining North and South poles
(B) Imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(C) A belt (ring) around the planet Saturn
(D) Axis of rotation of Earth
39. Global warming is expected to result in—
(A) Increase in level of sea
(B) Change in crop pattern
(C) Change in coast line
(D) All of the above
40. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by—
(A) UNESCO
(B) UNCED
(C) WHO
(D) UNICEF
41. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price elasticity is—
(A) Zero
(B) Positive
(C) Negative
(D) Imaginary number
42. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is—
(A) The cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
(B) The cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
(C) The actual cost incurred
(D) The next best alternative output sacrificed
43. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as—
(A) Economic rent
(B) Net rent
(C) Quasi-rent
(D) Super-normal rent
44. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Minister for Planning & Development
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Minister for Rural & Community Development
45. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ?
(A) Savings increases
(B) Lending decreases
(C) Cost of production increases
(D) Return on capital increases
46. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ?
(A) Value Added Method
(B) Income Method
(C) Investment Method
(D) Expenditure Method
47. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a—
(A) Labour Surplus Economy
(B) Capital Surplus Economy
(C) Developed Economy
(D) Developing Economy
48. Which one of the following would not constitute an economic activity ?
(A) A teacher teaching students in his class
(B) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home
(D) A teacher providing consultancy services from his residence
49. The Finance Commission—
(A) Draws up Five Year Plans
(B) Formulates Monetary Policy
(C) Recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(D) Adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
50. Net National Product of a country is—
(A) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(B) GDP plus net income from abroad
(C) GNP minus net income from abroad
(D) GNP minus depreciation allowances
51. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of—
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Spleen
52. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is—
(A) 82
(B) 92
(C) 72
(D) 98
53. EEG records the activity of—
(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Brain
(D) Muscles
54. The colour of cow’s milk is slight yellow due to the presence of—
(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Riboflavin
(C) Ribulose
(D) Carotene
55. Which one of these is a communicat disease ?
(A) Diabetes
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Arthritis
(D) Cancer
56. The concertration of which of following decreases in anaemia ?
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Collagen
(C) Hyoglobin
(D) Myosin
57. Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air ?
(A) Plague
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
58. Cereals are a rich source of—
(A) Starch
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose
59. Aspirin is common name of—
(A) Salicylic Acid
(B) Salicylate
(C) Methyl Salicylate
(D) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
60. Small Pox is caused by—
(A) Rubeola Virus
(B) Variola Virus
(C) Varicella
(D) Myxovirus
61. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the following is also inflammable ?
(A) Helium
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
62. Aerobic respiration process requires—
(A) Heat
(B) Water
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sunlight
63. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Cadmium
(C) Sodium
(D) Lithium
64. Ozone consists of—
(A) Oxygen only
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Carbon
(D) Oxygen and Carbon
65. Which of the following liquids has the least density ?
(A) Fresh water
(B) Salt water
(C) Petrol
(D) Mercury
66. Which of the following principle is used to produce ‘low-temperatures’ ?
(A) Super conductivity
(B) Joule-Kelvin effect
(C) Thermo-electric effect
(D) Adiabatic demagnetization
67. A photo-electric cell converts—
(A) Mechanical energy to electric energy
(B) Heat energy to mechanical energy
(C) Light energy to chemical energy
(D) Light energy to electrical energy
68. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building—
(A) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier
(B) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier
(C) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time
(D) Depends on the composition of the stone
69. Pulsars are—
(A) Stars moving towards the Earth
(B) Stars moving away from Earth
(C) Rapidly spinning stars
(D) High temperature stars
70. Biggest planet of solar system is—
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Saturn
(D) Jupiter
71. The ‘National School of Drama’ is situated in which of the following cities ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Kolkata
72. When was our National Anthem first sung and where ?
(A) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
(B) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(C) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
(D) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
73. The ozone hole that has been detected lies in the atmosphere above—
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Antarctica
(C) India
(D) Alaska
74. Brain drain—
(A) Is a disease
(B) Refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions
(C) Is fruitless expenditure of scientific and industrial research
(D) Refers to emigration of skilled persons
75. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 14
1. ‘India Today’ is—
(A) A staggering mass of problems
(B) Former British India minus Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) A News magazine mainly devoted to current affairs
(D) The Union of India, a member of United Nations
2. The book ‘It was Five Past Midnight’ is on—
(A) Bhuj Earthquake
(B) Orissa Floods
(C) Andhra Cyclone
(D) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
3. Teen Bigha Corridor links—
(A) India and Pakistan
(B) India and China
(C) Bangladesh and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
4. What is the field in which outstanding work may be recognized with the award of Pulitzer Prize ?
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Literature and Journalism
(C) International Understanding
(D) Environmental Studies
5. Vijay Stambha at Chittor was built by—
(A) Maharana Pratap
(B) Rana Sangram Singh
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Rana Ratan Singh
6. The device used to change the speed of an electric fan is—
(A) Amplifier
(B) Regulator
(C) Switch
(D) Rectifier
7. Namdhapa National Park is in—
(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Tripura
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
8. Which scripture was called his ‘mother’ by Gandhiji ?
(A) Ramayana
(B) The New Testament
(C) Bhagwat Gita
(D) The Holy Quran
9. On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Mandakini
(C) Dhauli Ganga
(D) Bhagirathi
10. Nobel Prize winning Indian Amartya Sen is known for his work in which area ?
(A) Physics
(B) Environmental Protection
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics
11. Who has been crowned Miss Universe, 2008 ?
(A) Miss Japan
(B) Miss Venezuela
(C) Miss Philippines
(D) Miss Malaysia
12. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India reached its highest level in 13 years on 27th July, 2008. It was—
(A) 11.75 per cent
(B) 11.85 per cent
(C) 12.00 per cent
(D) 12.05 per cent
13. The French Open, 2009 Men’s Singles was won by—
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Katarina Srebotnik
14. The venue of the Energy Summit, 2008 was—
(A) Jeddah
(B) Tehran
(C) Riyadh
(D) Tripoli
15. CTBT stands for—
(A) Continued Test Ban Treaty
(B) Continued Test Based Treatments
(C) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(D) Commercial Test Based Tariff
16. Asia Cup, 2008 final was played between—
(A) India and Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan and India
(C) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
17. For which one of the following, M. S. Dhoni was chosen for the year 2007 ?
(A) Arjun Award
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(D) None of the above
18. Full form of MCA is—
(A) Ministry of Company Affairs
(B) Master of Computer Application
(C) Member Chartered Accountant
(D) Master of Commerce and Arts
19. China has hosted the—
(A) XXIX Olympic Games
(B) XXVIII Olympic Games
(C) XXVII Olympic Games
(D) XXX Olympic Games
20. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by—
(A) Edward Stone
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Edwin Lutyens
(D) Tarun Dutt
21. ‘The Quit India Movement’ was launched in 1942 in the month of—
(A) January
(B) March
(C) August
(D) December
22. Match the following—
Column-I
(A) Keshab Sen
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan
Column-II
1. Prarthana Samaj
2. Brahmo Samaj
3. Aligarh Movement
4. Arya Samaj
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
23. Who was the first English President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) George Yule
(B) William Wedderburn
(C) A. O. Hume
(D) Henry Cotton
24. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old Man of India’ ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
25. Who wrote Akbarnama ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Birbal
(C) Abul Fazal
(D) Bhagavan Das
26. The pledge for ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was taken at the Congress Session of—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Lahore
(C) Allahabad
(D) Madras
27. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India ?
(A) 1950 A.D.
(B) 1945 A.D.
(C) 1959 A.D.
(D) 1962 A.D.
28. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) Mr. V. V. Giri
29. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words—‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?
(A) 28th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 52nd
30. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by—
(A) A person nominated by both the Houses of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of India
31. The Constitution of India came into force on—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1952
(C) 15 August, 1948
(D) 26 November, 1949
32. Who was the first Woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following ?
(A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
33. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is—
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Select Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) None of these
34. Fog is an example of—
(A) Gas dispersed in gas
(B) Liquid dispersed in gas
(C) Solid dispersed in gas
(D) Solid dispersed in liquid
35. Which from the following is a landlocked sea ?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea
36. Match the following—
Sea Ports
(A) Bhatkal
(b) Alleppey
(c) Kakinada
(d) Tuticorin
States
1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
37. Which one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall ?
(A) Isohypses
(B) Isohalines
(C) Isobars
(D) Isohyets
38. Equator represents—
(A) Line joining North and South poles
(B) Imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(C) A belt (ring) around the planet Saturn
(D) Axis of rotation of Earth
39. Global warming is expected to result in—
(A) Increase in level of sea
(B) Change in crop pattern
(C) Change in coast line
(D) All of the above
40. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by—
(A) UNESCO
(B) UNCED
(C) WHO
(D) UNICEF
41. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price elasticity is—
(A) Zero
(B) Positive
(C) Negative
(D) Imaginary number
42. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is—
(A) The cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
(B) The cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
(C) The actual cost incurred
(D) The next best alternative output sacrificed
43. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as—
(A) Economic rent
(B) Net rent
(C) Quasi-rent
(D) Super-normal rent
44. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Minister for Planning & Development
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Minister for Rural & Community Development
45. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ?
(A) Savings increases
(B) Lending decreases
(C) Cost of production increases
(D) Return on capital increases
46. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ?
(A) Value Added Method
(B) Income Method
(C) Investment Method
(D) Expenditure Method
47. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a—
(A) Labour Surplus Economy
(B) Capital Surplus Economy
(C) Developed Economy
(D) Developing Economy
48. Which one of the following would not constitute an economic activity ?
(A) A teacher teaching students in his class
(B) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home
(D) A teacher providing consultancy services from his residence
49. The Finance Commission—
(A) Draws up Five Year Plans
(B) Formulates Monetary Policy
(C) Recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(D) Adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
50. Net National Product of a country is—
(A) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(B) GDP plus net income from abroad
(C) GNP minus net income from abroad
(D) GNP minus depreciation allowances
51. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of—
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Spleen
52. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is—
(A) 82
(B) 92
(C) 72
(D) 98
53. EEG records the activity of—
(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Brain
(D) Muscles
54. The colour of cow’s milk is slight yellow due to the presence of—
(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Riboflavin
(C) Ribulose
(D) Carotene
55. Which one of these is a communicat disease ?
(A) Diabetes
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Arthritis
(D) Cancer
56. The concertration of which of following decreases in anaemia ?
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Collagen
(C) Hyoglobin
(D) Myosin
57. Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air ?
(A) Plague
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
58. Cereals are a rich source of—
(A) Starch
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose
59. Aspirin is common name of—
(A) Salicylic Acid
(B) Salicylate
(C) Methyl Salicylate
(D) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
60. Small Pox is caused by—
(A) Rubeola Virus
(B) Variola Virus
(C) Varicella
(D) Myxovirus
61. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the following is also inflammable ?
(A) Helium
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
62. Aerobic respiration process requires—
(A) Heat
(B) Water
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sunlight
63. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Cadmium
(C) Sodium
(D) Lithium
64. Ozone consists of—
(A) Oxygen only
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Carbon
(D) Oxygen and Carbon
65. Which of the following liquids has the least density ?
(A) Fresh water
(B) Salt water
(C) Petrol
(D) Mercury
66. Which of the following principle is used to produce ‘low-temperatures’ ?
(A) Super conductivity
(B) Joule-Kelvin effect
(C) Thermo-electric effect
(D) Adiabatic demagnetization
67. A photo-electric cell converts—
(A) Mechanical energy to electric energy
(B) Heat energy to mechanical energy
(C) Light energy to chemical energy
(D) Light energy to electrical energy
68. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building—
(A) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier
(B) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier
(C) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time
(D) Depends on the composition of the stone
69. Pulsars are—
(A) Stars moving towards the Earth
(B) Stars moving away from Earth
(C) Rapidly spinning stars
(D) High temperature stars
70. Biggest planet of solar system is—
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Saturn
(D) Jupiter
71. The ‘National School of Drama’ is situated in which of the following cities ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Kolkata
72. When was our National Anthem first sung and where ?
(A) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
(B) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(C) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
(D) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
73. The ozone hole that has been detected lies in the atmosphere above—
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Antarctica
(C) India
(D) Alaska
74. Brain drain—
(A) Is a disease
(B) Refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions
(C) Is fruitless expenditure of scientific and industrial research
(D) Refers to emigration of skilled persons
75. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 14
EC2305 Transmission Lines and Wave guides QUESTION PAPER
APRIL/MARCH 2008
PART A — (10 x 2 = 20 marks)
1. Define propagation constant of a transmission line.
2. Calculate the characteristic impedance of a transmission line if the following measurements have been made on the line Zoc= 550 /__-60 degree ohm and Z sc = 500/__30 degree.
3. What are the applications of the quarter—wave line?
4. A 50 ohm line is terminated in load ZR =90+j60 ohm. Determine the reflection coefficient.
5. What are the characteristics of principal wave?
6. Define the cut—off frequency of a guide.
7. A rectangular waveguide with dimensions a = 8.5 cm and b = 4.3cm is fed by 5 GHz carrier. Will a TE11 mode be propagated?
8. Define wave impedance and write the expression for wave impedance of TE waves in rectangular guide.
9. What are the applications of cavity resonators?
10. Write Bessel's function of first kind of order zero.
PART B — (5 x 16 = 80 marks)
11. (a) (i) Derive the expressions for the input impedance of a transmission line. 10) (ii) A cable has the following parameters: R: 48.75 ohm/km, L: 1.09 mH/km, G: 38.75 MU/km and C: 0.059 uf/km. Determine the characteristic impedance, propagation constant and wavelength for a source of f: 1600 Hz and Es: 1.0 volts. (6)
Or
(b) (i) A cable has been uniformly loaded by an inductance such that wl >> R . Assuming leakage conductance to be nil, deduce an expression for attenuation and phase constant without neglecting R. (ii) A transmission line has the following parameters per km R: 15 ohm, C: 15 uf, L: 1 mH and G: 1 uU. Find the additional inductance to give distortion-less transmission. Calculate attenuation and phase constant for the loaded line. ( 8 )
12. (a) (i) Deduce the expression for constant — S circle for the dissipation-less line and explain. ( 8 ) (ii) A transmission line is terminated in ZL. Measurements indicate that the standing wave minima are 102 cm apart and that the last minimum is 35 cm from the load end of the line. The value of standing wave ratio is 2.4 and R0 :250 ohm. Determine wave length and load impedance. ( 8 )
Or
(b) (i) Explain the procedure of double stub matching on a transmission line with an example. ( 8 ) (ii) Determine the length and location of a single short circuited stub to produce an impedance match on a transmission line with R0 of 600 Q and terminated in 1800 Q. ( 8 )
13. (a) (i) Derive the expressions for the field components of TM waves between parallel plates, propagating in Z direction. (10) (ii) For a frequency of 6 GHz and plane separation = 7 cm. Find the following for the TE1o made z (1) Cutoff frequency (2) Phase and group velocity. (6) Or (b) (i) Explain wave impedance and obtain the expressions of wave impedance for TE and TM waves guided along parallel planes, Also sketch the variation of wave impedance with frequency. (10) (ii) For a frequency of 5 GHz and plane separation of 8 cm in air, find the following for TM mode (6) (1) Cut-off wave length (2) Characteristic impedance and (3) Phase constant.
14. (a) (i) Obtain the solution of Electric and Magnetic fields of TM waves guided along rectangular wave guide. (10) (ii) A rectangular waveguide measures 3 >< 4.5 cm internally and has a 10 GHz signal propagated in it. Calculate the cut-off wavelength, the guide wavelength and the characteristic wave impedance for the TE mode. (6)
Or
(b) (i) Discuss the attenuation of electromagnetic wave s guided along rectangular waveguide. ( 8 ) (ii) What are the dimensions of a waveguide with the following specifications? (1) At a frequency of 9959.5 MHz, the guide wavelength for TE mode is 87.57% of the cut-off wavelength (2) TEao and TEiz mode have the same cut-off frequency. ( 8 )
15. (a) (i) Determine the solution of electric and magnetic fields of TM waves guided along circular waveguide. (10)
(ii) A circular waveguide has an internal diameter of 4 cm. For a 10 GHZ signal propagated in it in the TEn mode, calculate cut—off wavelength, guide wavelength and characteristic impedance. Uhm: 1.84 (6)
Or
(b) (i) Obtain the expression for resonant frequency of circular cavity resonator. ( 8 ) (ii) Calculate the resonant frequency of a rectangular resonator of dimensions a: 3 cm, b: 2 cm and d = 4 cm if the operating mode is TEioi. Assume free space within the cavity. (8 )
15. (a) (i) Determine the solution of electric and magnetic fields of TM waves guided along circular waveguide. (10)
(ii) A circular waveguide has an internal diameter of 4 cm. For a 10 GHZ signal propagated in it in the TEn mode, calculate cut—off wavelength, guide wavelength and characteristic impedance. Uhm: 1.84 (6)
Or
(b) (i) Obtain the expression for resonant frequency of circular cavity resonator. ( 8 ) (ii) Calculate the resonant frequency of a rectangular resonator of dimensions a: 3 cm, b: 2 cm and d = 4 cm if the operating mode is TEioi. Assume free space within the cavity. (8 )
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MAY/JUNE 2009
Sixth Semester
Electronics and Communication Engineering
CS 1251 - COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
(Common to B.E. (part-time)Fith Semester Regulation 2005) (Regulation 2004)
Time: Three hours Maximum: 100 marks Answer ALL questions
PART A - (10 * 2 = 20 marks)
Sixth Semester
Electronics and Communication Engineering
CS 1251 - COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
(Common to B.E. (part-time)Fith Semester Regulation 2005) (Regulation 2004)
Time: Three hours Maximum: 100 marks Answer ALL questions
PART A - (10 * 2 = 20 marks)
1. Define SPEC rating.
2. What are the major functions of system sotware in a typical computer?
3. Why is the implementation of logic operations easier than arithmetic operations using combiation circuitry?
4. What is Von Neumann rounding?
5. Distinguish betwee static and dynamic branch prediction approaches. 6. Define the terms microroutine and microinstruction.
7. How many 128 * 4 RAM memory chips are required to construct RAM memory system of 1 K bytes?
8. Compare SDRAM with DDE SDRAM.
9. What are vectored interrupts?
10. List the functions of I/O interface.
PART B - (5 * 16 = 80 marks)
11. (a)(i)Decribe the addressing modes for accessing memory content.(8) (ii) Name and explain various special register in a typical computer (8)
OR
(b)
(i) Explain Zero, one, two and three addressing instructions with example. (8)
(ii) What are the two ways of byte addressing? Explain. (8)
12. (a) (i) Describe the design of 4-bit carry look ahead adder. (8)
(ii) Illustrate multiplication of signed 2's complement number 01101 and 11010 using bit-pattern of the multipliers. (8) OR
(b) (i) Explain nonrestoring division algorithm with the help of suitable example. (8)
(ii) What is half adder? Design a half adder as a two-level AND-OR circuit and show how to implement a full adder using two half adders and a exteral logic gate. (8)
13. (a) (i) What are superscalar processors? Explain the typical structure of a typical superscalar processor. (10)
(ii) Draw the timing diagram for memory read operation and explain. (6) OR
(b) (i) Explain the basic organisation of a microprogrammed control unit and what modification is required in the basic organization to support microprogram branching. (8)
(ii) What are the three types of hazards that cause performance degradation in pipelined processors? Explai them in detail. (10)
14. (a) (i) Briefly explain any four nonvolatile memory in detail. (10)
(ii) Explain how virtual address is translated into physical address in a paged memory system with the help of a diagram. (6) OR
(b) (i) Describe the working principles of optical disks in detail. (10)
(ii) Draw a CMOS memory cell and explain its functions. (6)
15. (a) (i) Explain the block diagram of typical serial interface in detail (10)
(ii) With a neat diagram describe the implementation of distributed arbitration. (6) OR
(b) (i) Describe the major phases involved in the operation of the SCSI bus. (8)
(ii) What are the handshaking signals and what are the sequences of events during an input operation using handshake scheme? (8)
anna university be ece syllabus regulation 2008 GE 2211 EVS ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING GE2211 ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING
NOVEMBER/DECEMBER 2008
THIRD SEMESTER
HS1201 ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING (Common to E&I, ECE, EEE, ICE and CIVIL) (REGULATION 2007) Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks Answer ALL questions.
PART A – (10×2=20 marks)
1. What are renewable and non-renewable energy resources? Give examples.
2. Mention the factors causing soil erosion?
3. What are autotrophic and heterotrophic components of an ecosystem? Give examples.
4. What is ecological succession? Mention their types.
5. Classify air pollutants with suitable examples
6. What is meant by BOD and COD?
7. How does ozone layer depletion take place? Write its consequences.
8. What is meant by sustainable development?
9. Define population explosion.
10. Write the expansion for HIV and AIDS.
PART B – (5×16=80 marks)
11. (a) Discuss briefly the ill-effects of deforestation. (5)
(b) Explain the benefits and problem of constructing dams. (5)
(c) Write short notes on the problem of fertilizers and pesticides on modern agriculture. (6) Or
(a) Write an explanatory note on any two non-conventional energy resources. (8)
(b) Discuss the uses and effects of over-utilization of surface and ground water sources. (8)
12. (a) Define ecological pyramid and write a short notes on their types. (6)
(b) What is biodiversity? Discuss the genetic biodiversity and values of biodiversity. (10) Or Write short notes on energy flow in the ecosystem and food web. (6) (b) What do you understand by conservation of biodiversity? Explain the ‘Insitu and Exsitu conservation along with their merits and limitations’. 10)
13. (a) Name and discuss the effects of water pollution. Suggest the various control and remedial measures to curb water pollution. (10) (b) Write brief notes on solid waste management. (6) Or (a) Explain the effects of air pollution on human health, plants and animals. (8) (b) What is an earthquake? Enumerate its effects? Briefly explain the measures should be taken to mitigate this disaster. (8)
14. (a) What is ‘rainwater harvesting’? Name and discuss in brief the types of rainwater harvesting. (8) (b) Write note non salient features of environmental protection act. (8) Or (a) Write brief note on global warming and acid rain. (8) (b) Discuss the issues involved in the enforcement of environmental legislation. (8)
15. (a) Enumerate the effects population explosion. (8) (b) What is ‘value education’? Discuss the concept of values education with the help of suitable examples. (8) Or (a) Discuss the problems, diagnosis and control and AIDS. (8) (b) Discuss in detail the role of IT in protecting environment. (8)
How do you choose a college?
What determines the choice of a professional course or college? Experts provide perspectives to help students and parents.
FULLY INFORMED? Students expect professional colleges to put all information about themselves online. Many still do not.
With the merit list for engineering admissions released on Friday and the medical admissions merit list released already, students wishing to take up professional courses know where they stand in the pecking order. The question that must be uppermost in the minds of parents and students now is: How do we find out what college or course to take?
The first choice to make is, of course, whether to take up medicine or engineering. While too many students will not face this dilemma usually, for those who do, it is better to decide on this one based on interest rather than perceptions about job opportunities, educationists say. Once that is decided, the next question is what course and which college. “Any course in a good college will do,” one line of thought says. Another proclaims that a “good course is more important to choose. It does not matter which college you do it in.”
“The atmosphere in which students do their engineering or medicine is very important. The courses are all standardised and every engineering stream has both interesting elements for students and also good opportunities,” says one engineering college professor. Sudha Seshayyan, registrar-in-charge, Tamil Nadu Dr. MGR Medical University, recently said that taking up MBBS in any government medical college is the same as good faculty and infrastructure standards are maintained.
Infrastructure, quality of the faculty and of the students, the nature of placements, and other facilities are some of the important factors that decide whether the atmosphere of the college is conducive or not.
One student of a city-based college says the classroom atmosphere immediately became challenging and interesting compared to the school atmosphere but classmates helped ease the burden and over time the learning process became fun.
The Directorate of Technical Education (DOTE) has already put up some of the details already available with officials on its website www.tndte.com. The infrastructure details are also available in the handbook provided along with application forms.
Kumar Jayant, commissioner for technical education, says that the information on the infrastructure provided on the website is given by the colleges themselves. “Students should see what is available in which colleges. We have also put up the details of the pass percentages of students in different departments. Students can evaluate how different colleges are based on these to some extent,” he says.
The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) in a bid to improve transparency has asked all institutions to place online all the relevant details. But some of these reforms have run into problems with various associations saying it is infeasible to do in a short time. A case is pending in the Madras High Court and an AICTE official says the hope is that colleges will realise it is good for them in the long run to be transparent.
Ranking of colleges
But ranking of colleges based on their pass percentages or other parameters is difficult, says P. Mannar Jawahar, vice-chancellor, Anna University, Chennai. There are other factors that determine if a college is good including placements, the qualifications of the teachers, the research projects undertaken, he says. Many of these details are usually obtained by talking to students of the college and professors.
Higher Education Minister K. Ponmudy advises students to visit the campuses and get a first-hand feel of what the institution of their choice has to offer them. When pointed out that many institutions did not allow parents and students to enter the colleges, he said such things could be brought to the notice of the government, but emphasised that it was important to know if what was promised on paper was delivered.
Students should also be aware of capitation fees being collected by various colleges and other practices not according to the rules. The Tamil Nadu State Council for Technical Education has recently been formed and it would take note of all these issues, says Principal Secretary for Higher Education, K. Ganesan.
R. Ramaprabhu, former dean, College of Engineering, Guindy campus, adds another dimension to be taken care of: aptitude for engineering. He says many students blindly choose a subject assuming it will be good in the job market or because their peers have taken it up. He points out that aptitude in Maths or Physics may not translate into an aptitude for engineering.
It is that time of the year when students are anxiously waiting for admission to engineering, medical and arts and science courses of their choice. At this crucial stage both the students and their parents must exercise caution when it comes to choosing an educational institution.
Clear understanding and awareness about excellent opportunities and possibilities in streams other than engineering and medicine will help students narrow down their choice of courses they want to pursue.
Students should have a clear understanding about the distinction between science, engineering and technology. Briefly, science observes how things behave in Nature and attempts to give an acceptable explanation. Engineering is the application of science. Technology is application of engineering and science with multitude options thrown open for achieving the end result. With this clear understanding of the distinct nature of each subject, it becomes easier for students do decide why they want to study a particular subject.
Many students were lured to IT-related courses until recently. Parents also pressure their wards to choose a particular course not because their children are good and have desire, but because some have done well and excelled because of having chosen that particular course.
Now the trend has shifted from IT to core disciplines such as civil, mechanical, electrical and electronics, etc. Here, students should realise an important point that whatever course and career they choose, unless and until they work hard and study well, they will not excel in that field of study.
Students who join engineering courses should be aware that engineering course is tough and challenging. There is lot of mathematics involved, and students must try to relate mathematics taught with engineering applications.
Teachers' role here is of utmost importance. Students who study professional courses have a tendency to neglect science subjects, only to realise sooner the importance of physics and chemistry when they do their postgraduate studies and dissertations/projects.
Similarly, it has been observed that bright students coming out from school often get dejected when they are introduced to newer subjects in engineering curriculum such as engineering graphics and engineering mechanics in the first year of study and design subjects in the later years.
A lot of imagination and perspective thinking is needed whenever such new subjects are introduced. Further, students should have a vision for their future. In this competitive age we live in, a postgraduate degree is essential to strengthen one's domain knowledge, more so for students who opt for IT-related courses. Similarly, those who wish to pursue a management degree, should ensure they have at least two years of work experience as this would provide them with real-life case studies and industry knowledge.
For those students keen on further research or teaching, Ph.D will be the natural option. In general, staying alert and being aware of options for higher education and making a career choice accordingly will go a long way in making a successful career in the chosen field. Hard work and perseverance is the formula for success. Intelligent and prudent use of the Internet has its many advantages for the student community.
Dr. R. Ramaprabhu is currently Professor of Eminence, Anna University, and was previously dean, College of Engineering, Guindy.
Saturday, November 12, 2011
Engineering college aspirants in the State will face the all-important admission round this week. Unlike medical college admissions, engineering aspirants have a more daunting task ahead of them given that there are more seats on offer, multiple courses or trades to choose from, no less than 145 colleges and yes, one option too many to wade through.
So, how do they go about this process? What is the best way — to wait till D-day and choose depending on what appears on your screen at the counselling centre or prepare a list of options so you know what you're in for?
Be prepared
Experts say that being prepared is key. The Hindu EducationPlus spoke to professors, officials at the Karnataka Examinations Authority where you will be selecting your seat, ex-students and counsellors to find out what you can do to be prepared.
The biggest mistake that students make is to come unprepared for counselling, or let's say ill-prepared, says a professor who did not wish to be named. But first of all, he cautions, do not fall for the advice or rankings meted out by various books or CDs that claim to have an understanding of the process.
“While some books are helpful, a lot of the information given there is either outdated or misleading. For instance, a very popular book claims that at least 30 colleges had 100 per cent placements in 2008. However, I cannot think of more than six colleges that might even had a chance at 100 per cent placements,” the professor says.
Raghupathy Bhat, a student of RVCE who opted for a CET seat last year, agrees. Nothing can prepare you for D-Day, he exclaims. However, he adds that it is imperative for you to have more than a few back-up lists. “Students usually have several lists i.e. option A, B and C. If you just follow what last year's cut-off ranks are and draw up a short-list, you will end up a nervous wreck. Sitting in front of that computer screen, the more research you have done, the better you feel,” he says. So, while looking up last year's cut-offs for individual colleges is a good way to size up your chances, do understand that each year is different.
Career counsellor and CEO of Cigma Technologies Ameen Mudassar feels that the first priority should be choosing a branch. “Students must be clear about their priorities. The key to the process of narrowing down your options is to pick an initial pool of 10 to 15 colleges that interest you, and focus your research efforts on these colleges. One of the best approaches is to start from scratch and systematically get to a short-list that fits your interests, as varied as they may be, and also is academically sound.” Proximity of the college is key here, as is evaluating your interests when it comes to choosing a stream of your choice.
There are several old and new streams to choose from, and the one you choose dictates your course content for the next four years, so you may want to do some good research before that. Talking to parents, college teachers or career counsellors helps.
What is good?
Once you know which stream you wish to pursue, the next is to verify how good a college is. If you are among the top rankers, then most of your college choices or options are likely to be good. But the higher your rank, the more tricky your options are. It must be noted that out of the 140 colleges, nearly half are new and many are known to be low on infrastructure, quality faculty and therefore career prospects. Check out their website first, says a senior official from NAAC, the accreditation body.
The official says that accreditations or recognitions are mandatory. “If your college is not recognised by AICTE, then it is a dummy course and your college will not be able to issue you a degree. A visit to the AICTE website (http://www.aicte-india.org/) is your very first step. Cross-check with the State-wise list to see if a college's claim of being AICTE recognised is indeed real. Most colleges in Karnataka are affiliated to VTU, so the VTU website is also a good place to check. Do monitor newspapers and websites to see if any colleges have been de-recognised recently.”
Apart from AICTE (which is a basic recognition requirement), also check the websites of each college to see what are the additional accreditations they have. “Many colleges claim to have tie-ups with some foreign partners. But these do not really count. What you must look for is accreditations by government bodies,” he says. The NAAC is an autonomous body established by the University Grants Commission (UGC) to assess and accredit institutions of higher education in the country. But students must not be misled by blanket statements regarding accreditation.
Often, there are courses that colleges start after receiving accreditation, or there are courses that are not rated in each college. It must be remembered that often, recognition or approval is granted for certain courses that are functioning well. This does not mean that all courses offered here are worth it. Infrastructure, quality faculty and placements are the three most important factors to keep in mind. Do a recce, if you can.
Talk to seniors
Talk to your seniors with these factors in mind. Ask them which branch in their college has the best teachers. “Are the labs good? Do students get enough chances to use all the equipment there? How easy is access to labs, libraries and other digital equipment? Are the professors open to offering help in the labs after class hours?” are a few questions you can ask your seniors, says the professor. However, nothing beats the personal experience of doing a recce of at least six or eight colleges.
Use the Internet, advises Mr. Mudassar. “To get the real picture, you must search on social networking sites such as Orkut and Facebook for students who are studying as well as those who have completed the course. This is a wonderful opportunity to ask any questions starting from how good is the college in reality to the inside story about how the labs are or the placements.”
thanks The Hindu
Saturday, November 12, 2011 0
SEMESTER VIII
(Applicable to the students admitted from the Academic year 2008–2009 onwards)
CODE NO. COURSE TITLE L T P C
THEORY
Elective V 3 0 0 3
Elective VI 3 0 0 3
PRACTICAL
EC2451 Project Work 0 0 12 6
TOTAL 6 0 12 12
SEMESTER VIII - Elective V
CODE NO. COURSE TITLE L T P C
EC2042 Embedded and Real Time Systems 3 0 0 3
EC2046 Advanced Electronic system design 3 0 0 3
EC2047 Optoelectronic devices 3 0 0 3
EC2050 Mobile Adhoc Networks 3 0 0 3
EC2051 Wireless Sensor Networks 3 0 0 3
EC2052 Remote Sensing 3 0 0 3
EC2053 Engineering Acoustics 3 0 0 3
SEMESTER VIII - Elective VI
CODE NO. COURSE TITLE L T P C
EC2043 Wireless networks 3 0 0 3
EC2044 Telecommunication Switching and Networks 3 0 0 3
EC2045 Satellite Communication 3 0 0 3
EC2048 Telecommunication System Modeling and
Simulation
3 0 0 3
EC2049 Radar and Navigational Aids 3 0 0 3
EC2054 Optical Networks 3 0 0 3
PROJECTION OF POINTS
1. Draw the projections of the following points on the same reference straight line:
A- 10 mm above HP and 20mm in front of VP.
B- 20 mm above HP and 30mm behind of VP.
C- 30mm below HP and 40mm behind VP.
D- 40mm below HP and 50 mm in front of VP.
E- On HP and 20mm behind VP
F- On VP and 25mm below HP.
G- On both HP and VP.
H- 20mm above HP and 20mm behind VP.
2. The Figure shows the projection of different points. Determine the position of the points with respect to the projection planes. All distances are in mm.
PROJECTION OF STRAIGHT LINES
- A line AB 60mm long has its end A10mm above HP and 20mm in front of VP. The line is kept perpendicular to HP and parallel to VP. Draw its projections.
- A line BC 40mm has its end B 25mm above HP and 30mm in front of VP. The line is kept perpendicular to VP and parallel to HP. Draw its projections.
STRAIGHT LINE INCLINED TO ONE PLANE ONLY
- A line DE 35mm long has its end D 5mm above HP and 10mm in front of VP. The line is kept inclined at 30° to HP and parallel to VP. Draw its projections.
- A line EF 70mm long has its end E 40mm above HP and 20mm in front of VP. The line is inclined at 60° to VP and parallel to HP. Draw its projections.
- A line FG 65mm long has its end F 25mm above HP and on VP. The line is inclined at 45° to HP. Draw its projections.
- A line GH 35mm long has its end G 20mm in front of VP and on HP. The line is inclined at 35° to VP. Draw its projections.
- A line PQ 70mm long has its end P 15mm above HP and 25mm in front of VP. The top view measures 40mm.Draw its projections and find the inclination of the line with HP.
- A line QR 65mm long has its end Q 20mm above HP and 15mm in front of VP. Its front view has a length of 35mm. Draw the projections and find the inclination of the line with VP.
STRAIGHT LINE INCLINED TO BOTH HP AND VP
- A straight line AB of length 50 mm is inclined at 30º to HP and 45º to VP. Point A is 15mm above HP and 20mm in front of VP. Draw the projections of the straight line.
10. A line BC 80mm long has its end B, 15mm from both HP and VP. Other end C is 40mm above HP and 50mm in front of VP. Draw the projections of the line and determine the inclination of the line with HP and VP.
11. A line CD 70mm long has its end C 35mm above HP and 30mm in front of VP
The top view and the front view has a length of 45mm and 60mm respectively.
Draw its projections.
- A line DE 75mm long has its end D on both HP and VP. The line is kept inclined
at 45° to HP and 30° to VP. Draw its projections.
13. One end E of a line EF, 75mm long is 20mm above HP and 25mm in front of VP.
The line is inclined at 30° to HP and the top view makes 45° with VP. Draw the
projections of the line and find its true inclination with VP.
14. A line FG 50mm long has its end F 10mm above HP and 15mm in front of
VP. The line is inclined at 35° to HP and 55° to VP. Draw its projections.
15. A line GH 85mm long has its end G 25mm above HP and 20mm in front of VP.
End H is 60mm above HP and 50mm in front of VP. Draw the projections and find the inclinations of the line with HP and VP.
16 A line PQ measuring 75mm long has one of its ends, 50mm in front of VP and
15mm above HP. The top view of the line is 50mm long. Draw and measure the
front view. The other end is 15mm in front of VP and is above HP. Determine the
true inclinations of the line.
17 .A line QR has its end Q 20mm above HP and 25mm in front of VP. The other end R
is 45mm above HP and 55mm in front of VP. Distance between the end projectors is
60mm. Draw its projections and also find the true length and true inclinations of
the line with HP and VP.
18. The mid point of the line RS 90mm long is 60mm above HP and 50mm in front of
VP. It is inclined at 30°to HP and 45° to VP. Draw its projections.
PROJECTION OF PLANES
1. A Square plane of side 40mm has its surface parallel to VP and perpendicular to HP. Draw its projections when one of the sides is inclined at 30° to HP.
2. A Circular plane of diameter 50mm has its surface parallel to HP and perpendicular to VP. Its Centre is 20mm above HP and 30mm in front of VP. Draw its projections.
3.. A Pentagonal lamina of side 30mm is placed with one side on HP and the surface inclined at 50° to HP and perpendicular to VP. Draw its projections.
4. A Hexagonal plane of side 30mm is placed with a side on VP and the surface inclined at 45° to VP and perpendicular to HP. Draw its projections.
5. A pentagon of side 30mm rests o the ground on one of its corners with the sides containing the corner being equally inclined to the ground. The side opposite to the corner on which it rests is inclined at 30° to the VP and is parallel to HP. The surface of the pentagon makes 50° with the ground. Draw the top and front views of the pentagon.
6. Pentagonal lamina of side 30mm is resting on one of its edges on HP which is inclined at 45° to VP.Its surface is inclined to 30° . Draw its projections.
PROJECTION OF SOLIDS
SOLIDS IN SIMPLE POSITION
- A Cube of 40mm side rests on HP on one of its ends with a face parallel to VP and 25mm in front of VP. Draw the top and front views of the cube.
- A Cube of side 40mm rests on HP on one of its ends with a vertical face inclined at 40° to VP. Draw its projections.
- A Cube of side 40mm rests on HP on one of its ends with its vertical faces equally inclined to VP. Draw its projections.
4. Draw the top and front view of a square pyramid of base side 30mm and altitude 40mm when it is resting on HP on its base with one of the edges of the base inclined at 60° to VP.
- Draw the projection of a pentagonal prism of base side 20mm and axis length 35mm when it is resting on HP on its base with one of the edges of the base inclined at 30° to VP.
- Draw the projections of a hexagonal pyramid of side of base 30mm and altitude 60mm when it is resting on its base on a HP with an edge of the base inclined at 30° VP.
- A square prism of base edge 25mm and axis length 60mm is lying on HP on one of its longer edges with its rectangular faces equally inclined to HP. Draw its projections when the axis is perpendicular to VP and parallel to HP.
- A Pentagonal pyramid of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm rests on HP on one corner of the base. The base edge containing that corner makes 40° with HP. Draw its projections when the axis is perpendicular to VP and parallel to HP.
- A hexagonal prism of base side 20mm and axis length 50mm lies on HP on one of its rectangular faces with the axis parallel to both HP and VP. Draw its projections.
- A pentagonal prism of base side 40mm and axis 60mm long lies on HP on one of its longer edges with its axis parallel to both HP and VP. One of the rectangular faces containing the resting edge is inclined at 30° to HP. Draw its plan and elevation.
AXIS INCLINED TO ONE PLANE AND PARALLEL TO THE OTHER
- A hexagonal prism of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm lies on HP on one of its base edges with its axis inclined at 60° to HP and parallel to VP. Draw its projections.
- Draw the projections of a cube of side 40mm when it rests on HP on one of its corners and the face containing that corner is inclined at 30° to HP and parallel to HP.
- A square prism of base side 35mm and axis length 60mm rests on one of its base edges on HP with its axis inclined at 30° to HP and parallel to VP. Draw its projections.
- A cylinder of base diameter 30mm and axis length 50mm is resting on HP on a point of base so that its axis is inclined at 45° to HP and parallel to VP. Draw its front view and top views.
- A hexagonal pyramid of base edge 40mm and height 80mm lies on one of its base edges on HP with its axis inclined at 30° to HP and parallel to VP. Draw its projections.
- A square pyramid of base side 30mm and height 60mm lies on HP on one of its triangular faces with its axis parallel to VP. Draw its projections.
- A pentagonal pyramid of base edge 25mm and axis 60mm long rests on a base side on HP such that the highest base corner is 20mm above HP and its axis is parallel to VP. Draw its projections.
- A cone of base diameter 40mm and altitude 60mm rests on HP with its axis inclined at 30° to HP and parallel to VP. Draw its projections.
- Draw the projections of a cone of base diameter 50mm and axis length 70mm when it lies on the ground on one of its generators with its axis parallel to VP.
- A hexagonal pyramid of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm is resting on HP on one of its base corners with its axis inclined at 35° to VP and parallel to HP. Draw its projections when the base sides containing the resting corner are equally inclined to HP.
SECTION OF SOLIDS
- A square prism of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm is resting on HP on one of its faces with a base side inclined at 25° to VP. It is cut by plane inclined at 40° to HP and perpendicular to VP and is bisecting the axis of the prism. Draw its front view, sectional top view and true shape of the section.
- A pentagonal pyramid of base side 40mm and axis length 75mm is resting on HP on its base with one of its base sides parallel to VP. It is cut by a plane inclined at 35° to HP and perpendicular to VP and is bisecting the axis. Draw its front view, sectional top view and true shape of the section.
- A hexagonal prism of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm is resting on HP on its base with two of the vertical faces perpendicular to VP. It is cut by a plane inclined at 50° to HP and perpendicular to VP and passing through a point at a distance of 12mm from the top face. Draw its front view, sectional top view and true shape of the section.
- A cylinder of base diameter 45mm and height 65mm lies on its base on HP. It is cut by a plane perpendicular to VP and inclined at 30° to HP. And meeting the axis at a distance of 30mm from the base. Draw its front view, sectional top view and true shape of the section.
- A cone of base diameter 50mm and axis length 75mm is resting on HP on its base .It is cut by a plane inclined at 45° to HP and perpendicular to VP and is bisecting the axis. Draw its front view, sectional top view and true shape of the section.
- A hexagonal pyramid of base side 30mm and height 60mm is resting on HP on its base with two of the base sides perpendicular to VP. It is cut by a section plane perpendicular to VP and parallel to and 25mm above HP. Draw its front view and sectional top view.
- A square pyramid of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm is resting on HP on its base with one side of the base inclined at 30° to VP. It is cut by a plane perpendicular to VP and parallel to and 15mm above HP. Draw its front view and sectional top view.
- A pentagonal prism of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm is resting on HP on one of its rectangular faces with its axis perpendicular to VP. It is cut by a section plane inclined at 40° to VP and perpendicular to HP and passing through a point 25mm from the rear face of the prism. Draw its front view, sectional top view and true shape of the section.
- A cone of base diameter 60mm and axis length 70mm is resting on HP on its base. It is cut by a plane perpendicular to VP and parallel to an end generator (contour generator) and is 10mm away from it. Draw its front view, sectional top view and true shape of the section.
DEVELOPMENT OF SURFACES
- A square prism of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm is resting on HP on one of its faces with a base side inclined at 30 to VP. It is cut by plane inclined at 40° to HP and perpendicular to VP and is bisecting the axis of the prism. Draw its development
- A pentagonal prism of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm is resting on HP on its base with one of its base sides parallel to VP. It is cut by a plane inclined at 35° to HP and perpendicular to VP and meets the axis at a distance of 35mm from the base. Draw the development of the lower portion of the solid.
- A hexagonal prism of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm is resting on HP on its base with two of the vertical faces perpendicular to VP. It is cut by a plane inclined at 50° to HP and perpendicular to VP and passing through a point at a distance of 10mm from the top face. Draw the development of the lower portion of the solid.
- A cylinder of base diameter 45mm and height 65mm lies on its base on HP. It is cut by a plane perpendicular to VP and inclined at 30° to HP. And meeting the axis at a distance of 30mm from the base. Draw the development of the lower portion of the solid.
- A cone of base diameter 50mm and axis length 75mm is resting on HP on its base .It is cut by a plane inclined at 45° to HP and perpendicular to VP and is bisecting the axis. Draw the development of the lower portion of the solid.
- A pentagonal pyramid of base side 30mm and axis length 60mm is resting on HP on its base with a side parallel to VP. It is cut by a plane inclined at 40° to HP and perpendicular to VP and passing through a point at a distance of 15mm from the base.. Draw the development of the lower portion of the solid.
ISOMETRIC PROJECTION
1. Draw the isometric projection of a hexagonal prism of base side 25mm and axis height 60mm when it rests on HP on its base with a base edge parallel tom VP.
2. Draw the isometric projection of a cylinder of base diameter 50mm and axis height 60mm when it rests on HP on its base.
3. A hexagonal prism of base side 25mm and axis height 50mm rests on HP on its base with a base edge parallel tom VP. It is cut by a plane inclined at 50° to HP and perpendicular to VP and is bisecting the axis. Draw the isometric view of truncated prism.
4. A cylinder of base diameter 50mm and axis height 60mm rests on HP on its base. It is cut by a plane inclined at 55° to HP and perpendicular to VP and passing through a point at a distance of 45mm from the base. Draw the isometric view of the cylinder.
5. Draw the isometric projection of a hexagonal pyramid of base side 30mm and axis height 75mm when it rests on HP on its base with a base edge parallel tom VP.
6. Draw the isometric projection of a cone of base diameter 40mm and axis height 60mm when it rests on HP on its base.
7. A pentagonal pyramid of base side 30 mm and axis length 65 mm is resting on HP on its base with a side of base perpendicular to VP. It is cut by a plane inclined at 30° to HP and perpendicular to VP and passing through a point ON the axis at a distance of 30 mm from the apex.. Draw the isometric view of the truncated cylinder.
8. A cone of base diameter 50mm and axis height 70 mm rests on HP on its base. It is cut by a plane inclined at 30° to HP and perpendicular to VP and meets the axis at a distance of 40 mm from the base. Draw the isometric view of the truncated cone.
9. A square prism of base side 20 mm and height 40 mm rests on HP on its base. With its side equally inclined to VP. It is cut by a plane inclined at 45° to HP and perpendicular to VP and meets the axis at a distance of 7 mm from the Face. Draw the isometric view of the truncated prism.
PERSPECTIVE PROJECTION
- A pentagonal pyramid of side 25mm and height 55mm rests on HP on its base with an edge in PP. The station point is 60mm in front of PP, 75 mm above GP and lying on a central plane passing through the apex. Draw the perspective view.
2. A square prism of base side 30mm and height 60mm rests on its base with the
nearest edge of the base is parallel to and 5 mm behind PP. The station point is
60mm in front of PP, 50 mm above GP and lying on a central plane 25mmto the
left of the mid of the solid.. Draw the perspective projection.
- A rectangular prism of base size 25x 40x 60 mm rests with its on the ground
such that the longer base edge recedes 30 to the right of PP with one end of it
behind PP. The station point is 45mm in front of PP, 35 mm above GP and lying
on a central plane 35 mm from the nearest Vertical edge. Draw the perspective
view.
- A square pyramid of base 30 mm and axis height 65mm rests on ground vertically with a base edge in PP. on its base with an edge in PP. The station point is 40mm in front of PP, 90 mm above GP and lying on a central plane passing through the point 20 mm to the left of the axis..
Draw the perspective projection
- A cylinder of diameter 50 mm rests on ground vertically with its axis 5 mm behind PP. The observer point is 40mm infront of PP, 100 mm above GP and is 10 mm to the right of the nearest base corner point. a central plane passing through the apex. Draw the perspective projection.
.
PLANE CURVES (Eccentricity method only)
1. Draw an ellipse when the distance of focus from the directrix is 40 mm &eccentricity is ¾.
Draw a tangent at a point of the ellipse.
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